Name: __________________________ Date: _____________



1.
A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should:
A.
apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs.
B.
administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment.
C.
assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations.
D.
stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.


2.
A Colles fracture involves a fracture of the:
A.
distal ulna.
B.
distal radius.
C.
proximal radius.
D.
radius and ulna.


3.
What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures?
A.
cardiac
B.
skeletal
C.
striated
D.
smooth


4.
Bone marrow produces:
A.
platelets.
B.
blood cells.
C.
lymphocytes.
D.
electrolytes.


5.
In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless:
A.
the patient is in severe pain.
B.
the patient is clinically unstable.
C.
deformity and swelling are present.
D.
transport time is less than 15 minutes.


6.
A subluxation occurs when:
A.
ligaments are partially severed.
B.
a fracture and a dislocation exist.
C.
a joint is incompletely dislocated.
D.
a bone develops a hairline fracture.


7.
You have applied a zippered air splint to a patient's left arm. During transport, the patient complains of increased numbness and tingling in his left hand. You reassess distal circulation and note that it remains present. Your MOST appropriate action should be to:
A.
elevate the injured arm and reassess distal sensory function.
B.
inflate the splint with more air until the patient is comfortable.
C.
assess the amount of air in the splint and let air out as necessary.
D.
remove the air splint and reimmobilize with padded board splints.


8.
A 31-year-old male fell and landed on his left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse on the side of the injury is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closest appropriate hospital is approximately 15 minutes. You should:
A.
splint the elbow in the position found and transport.
B.
gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation.
C.
gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint.
D.
apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling.


9.
Crepitus and false motion are:
A.
indicators of a severe sprain.
B.
only seen with open fractures.
C.
positive indicators of a fracture.
D.
most common with dislocations.


10.
Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss.
A.
1,000
B.
1,500
C.
2,000
D.
4,000


11.
The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the:
A.
clavicle.
B.
scapula.
C.
radius and ulna.
D.
midshaft femur.


12.
During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should:
A.
splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately.
B.
apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.
C.
carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints.
D.
make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow.


13.
During your rapid secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25′, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should:
A.
defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center.
B.
perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis.
C.
stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.
D.
log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once.


14.
During your rapid secondary assessment of a 19-year-old female with multiple trauma, you note bilateral humeral deformities and a deformity to the left midshaft femur. Her skin is diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and weak. Your partner has appropriately managed her airway and is maintaining manual stabilization of her head. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
A.
applying and inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) and transporting.
B.
immobilizing her to a backboard and rapidly transporting.
C.
applying a traction splint to immobilize her femur.
D.
carefully splinting each of her deformed extremities.


15.
Which of the following joints allows no motion?
A.
skull sutures
B.
sacroiliac joint
C.
shoulder joint
D.
sternoclavicular joint


16.
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called:
A.
fascia.
B.
tendons.
C.
cartilage.
D.
ligaments.


17.
If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting:
A.
distal circulation.
B.
the patient history.
C.
bruising to the shoulder.
D.
the presence of deformity.


18.
The PASG is absolutely contraindicated in patients who have:
A.
pelvic fractures.
B.
pulmonary edema.
C.
bilateral femur fractures.
D.
any trauma below the pelvis.


19.
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity?
A.
severe strain
B.
moderate sprain
C.
hairline fracture
D.
displaced fracture


20.
The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called:
A.
traction.
B.
reduction.
C.
stabilization.
D.
immobilization.


21.
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which:
A.
bone ends protrude through the skin.
B.
a large laceration overlies the fracture.
C.
a bullet shatters the underlying bone.
D.
the overlying skin is no longer intact.


22.
Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed in order to:
A.
prevent further injury.
B.
reduce pain and swelling.
C.
enhance tissue circulation.
D.
maintain extremity perfusion.


23.
The MOST reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is:
A.
guarding.
B.
severe swelling.
C.
obvious bruising.
D.
point tenderness.


24.
A 76-year-old male experienced sudden pain to his left thigh when he was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and deformity to the distal aspect of his left femur, just above the knee. Distal circulation and sensory and motor functions are intact. The MOST appropriate method of splinting this injury involves:
A.
applying a traction splint to realign the deformity.
B.
applying and fully inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG).
C.
applying padded board splints to both sides of the leg.
D.
binding the legs together and elevating them 6″ to 8″.


25.
The pectoral girdle consists of the:
A.
scapulae and clavicles.
B.
clavicles and rib cage.
C.
sternum and scapulae.
D.
acromion and clavicles.


26.
When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should:
A.
carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.
B.
apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.
C.
assume that minimal force was applied to the back.
D.
recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.


27.
A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for:
A.
anterior hip dislocation.
B.
posterior hip dislocation.
C.
a thoracic spine fracture.
D.
fracture of the tibia or fibula.


28.
Which of the following scenarios is an example of a direct injury?
A.
A passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard.
B.
A skier dislocates his knee after a twisting injury to the ankle.
C.
A person lands on his or her feet and fractures the lumbar spine.
D.
A child dislocates his elbow after falling on his outstretched arm.


29.
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct?
A.
Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.
B.
Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity.
C.
In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury.
D.
Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.


30.
Which of the following structures is regulated by smooth muscle?
A.
heart
B.
skeleton
C.
blood vessels
D.
diaphragm


31.
A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should:
A.
manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop.
B.
carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg.
C.
place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps.
D.
bind both of her legs together with triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher.


32.
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life?
A.
an amputated extremity
B.
bilateral femur fractures
C.
nondisplaced long bone fractures
D.
pelvic fracture with hypotension


33.
A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities.
A.
greenstick
B.
diaphyseal
C.
epiphyseal
D.
metaphyseal


34.
A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments.
A.
strain
B.
sprain
C.
fracture
D.
dislocation


35.
A 21-year-old male was thrown over the handlebars of his motorcycle when he rear-ended a car that was stopped at a red light. He was wearing a helmet, which he removed prior to your arrival. He is conscious, but restless, and has closed deformities to both of his femurs. His skin is pale, his heart rate is rapid and weak, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. In addition to applying high-flow oxygen and protecting his spine, you should:
A.
bind his legs together on the backboard, keep him warm, and transport without delay.
B.
apply traction splints to both of his legs, keep him warm, and transport without delay.
C.
splint each of his deformed femurs with long board splints and transport immediately.
D.
apply the PASG to stabilize his femurs and transport at once.


36.
The musculoskeletal system refers to the:
A.
bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
B.
nervous system's control over the muscles.
C.
connective tissue that supports the skeleton.
D.
involuntary muscles of the nervous system.


37.
Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct?
A.
Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it.
B.
Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels.
C.
Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage.
D.
It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.


38.
You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should:
A.
assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions.
B.
gently attempt to move his arm toward his body.
C.
place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe.
D.
flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling.


39.
Following direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should:
A.
hyperventilate him with a bag-mask device and monitor his oxygen saturation.
B.
apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport.
C.
focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen.
D.
apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay.


40.
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain?
A.
cardiac
B.
skeletal
C.
smooth
D.
autonomic


41.
A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the:
A.
radial head.
B.
distal humerus.
C.
proximal radius.
D.
olecranon process.


42.
The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is:
A.
aggravation of the injury or worsened pain.
B.
reduction in circulation distal to the injury site.
C.
compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature.
D.
delaying transport of a critically injured patient.


43.
The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a:
A.
strain.
B.
sprain.
C.
fracture.
D.
dislocation.


44.
Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock?
A.
hip
B.
femur
C.
pelvis
D.
humerus


45.
Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle.
A.
smooth
B.
striated
C.
connective
D.
involuntary


46.
The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is:
A.
neurovascular compromise.
B.
internal bleeding and shock.
C.
ligament and cartilage damage.
D.
total depletion of synovial fluid.


47.
When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should:
A.
assess proximal circulation.
B.
compare it to the uninjured leg.
C.
carefully move it to elicit crepitus.
D.
ask the patient to move the injured leg.


48.
Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
swelling.
B.
deformity.
C.
ecchymosis.
D.
point tenderness.


49.
With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the:
A.
area of obvious deformity over the site of impact.
B.
exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted.
C.
area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.
D.
part of the body that sustained secondary injury.


50.
Assessing a person's neurovascular status following a musculoskeletal injury includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
assessing motor function.
B.
assessing sensory function.
C.
evaluating proximal pulses.
D.
determining capillary refill.


51.
Which of the following statements regarding lightning strikes is correct?
A.
Lighting often results in a brief period of asystole that resolves spontaneously.
B.
The tissue damage pathway caused by lightning usually occurs through the skin.
C.
Victims who are struck by lightning often experience severe full-thickness burns.
D.
Cervical spine fractures are the most common cause of lightning-related deaths.


52.
You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should:
A.
immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment.
B.
focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest.
C.
open the unresponsive patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, assess his ABCs, and begin CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.
D.
recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries.


53.
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to occur in a patient with a core body temperature of between 89°F (32°C) and 92°F (33°C)?
A.
bradypnea
B.
confusion
C.
stiff muscles
D.
tachycardia


54.
Signs of late heatstroke include:
A.
hot, moist skin.
B.
nausea and vomiting.
C.
a weak, rapid pulse.
D.
a change in behavior.


55.
Geriatric patients are at a higher risk for heatstroke because:
A.
circulation to the skin is reduced.
B.
most geriatric patients are obese.
C.
their ability to sweat is enhanced.
D.
their ability to shiver is reduced.


56.
Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to:
A.
cardiac arrhythmias.
B.
a decreased heart rate.
C.
severe muscular rigidity.
D.
blood clotting abnormalities.


57.
The venom of a brown recluse spider is cytotoxic, meaning that it:
A.
suppresses the respiratory drive.
B.
destroys the body's red blood cells.
C.
weakens the structure of the bones.
D.
causes severe local tissue damage.


58.
A 48-year-old male was stung on the leg by a jellyfish while swimming in the ocean. He is conscious and alert, but complains of intense pain at the wound site. Specific treatment for this patient includes:
A.
irrigating the wound with vinegar and immersing his leg in hot water.
B.
pulling the nematocysts out with tweezers and bandaging the wound.
C.
immersing his leg in fresh cold water and scraping away the stingers.
D.
applying a chemical ice pack to the wound and encouraging movement.


59.
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia?
A.
hypoperfusion
B.
severe infection
C.
hyperglycemia
D.
spinal cord injury


60.
When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called:
A.
radiation.
B.
conduction.
C.
convection.
D.
evaporation.


61.
You are dispatched to a local high school track and field event for a 16-year-old male who fainted. The outside temperature is approximately 95°F (35°C) with high humidity. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious, alert, and complains of nausea and a headache. His skin is cool, clammy, and pale. You should:
A.
give him a liquid salt solution to drink.
B.
administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
C.
apply chemical ice packs to his axillae.
D.
move him into the cooled ambulance.


62.
In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider:
A.
is very small and has a violin-shaped marking on its back.
B.
is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen.
C.
has a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops.
D.
has a bite that usually produces local pain but no systemic signs or symptoms.


63.
Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia?
A.
The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C).
B.
The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.
C.
Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water.
D.
The body eliminates more heat than it can generate.


64.
The two MOST efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are:
A.
respiration and bradycardia.
B.
perspiration and tachycardia.
C.
sweating and dilation of skin blood vessels.
D.
hyperventilation and tachycardia.


65.
A frostbitten foot can be identified by the presence of:
A.
gross deformity.
B.
soft, smooth skin.
C.
mottling and blisters.
D.
blanching of the skin.


66.
To assess a patient's general temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the:
A.
neck.
B.
chest.
C.
abdomen.
D.
forehead.


67.
Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by:
A.
water temperature lower than 70°F (21°C).
B.
too rapid of a descent.
C.
alcohol consumption.
D.
too rapid of an ascent.


68.
The diving reflex may allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to:
A.
bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate.
B.
laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water.
C.
tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure.
D.
increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.


69.
The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is:
A.
tightness in the chest.
B.
difficulty with vision.
C.
dizziness and nausea.
D.
abdominal or joint pain.


70.
The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are:
A.
shivering and vasodilation.
B.
vasodilation and respiration.
C.
respiration and vasoconstriction.
D.
vasoconstriction and shivering.


71.
In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism:
A.
several layers of clothing must be worn.
B.
it must be able to evaporate from the body.
C.
the relative humidity must be above 90%.
D.
the body must produce at least 1 L per hour.


72.
Breath-holding syncope is caused by a decreased stimulus to breathe and occurs when:
A.
a swimmer breathes shallowly before entering the water.
B.
a diver holds his or her breath during a staged ascent.
C.
a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water.
D.
a diver holds his or her breath for a long period of time.


73.
Signs and symptoms of an air embolism include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
dysphasia.
B.
pale skin.
C.
dizziness.
D.
joint pain.


74.
The transfer of heat to circulating air, such as when cool air moves across the body's surface, is called:
A.
radiation.
B.
conduction.
C.
convection.
D.
evaporation.


75.
Heatstroke occurs when:
A.
a person's core body temperature rises above 103°F (39°C).
B.
the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed.
C.
a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss.
D.
the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32°C) and the humidity is high.


76.
While drinking beer with his friends near a creek, a 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include:
A.
applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly.
B.
transporting only with close, continuous monitoring.
C.
elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin.
D.
supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.


77.
A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below:
A.
90°F (32°C).
B.
92°F (33°C).
C.
94°F (34°C).
D.
95°F (35°C).


78.
A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You perform a primary assessment and determine that the patient is apneic and has a slow, weak pulse. You should:
A.
suction his airway for 30 seconds, provide rescue breathing, keep him warm, and transport at once.
B.
ventilate with a bag-mask device, apply a cervical collar, remove his wet clothing, and transport rapidly.
C.
provide rescue breathing, remove wet clothing, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully.
D.
apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport rapidly.


79.
Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation?
A.
local swelling and ecchymosis
B.
general weakness and diaphoresis
C.
syncope and bleeding at distal sites
D.
signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion


80.
The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by:
A.
an air embolism.
B.
alcohol intoxication.
C.
possible spinal injury.
D.
cold water immersion.


81.
Geriatric patients, newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they:
A.
have relatively smaller heads.
B.
have less body fat.
C.
exhibit poor thermoregulation.
D.
have smaller body surface areas.


82.
High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by:
A.
radiation.
B.
convection.
C.
conduction.
D.
evaporation.


83.
Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below:
A.
98°F (37°C).
B.
95°F (35°C).
C.
90°F (32°C).
D.
88°F (31°C).


84.
Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because:
A.
blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core.
B.
peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface.
C.
the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia.
D.
the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature.


85.
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:
A.
renal system.
B.
nervous system.
C.
respiratory system.
D.
cardiovascular system.


86.
Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency?
A.
Motrin
B.
Tylenol
C.
Aspirin
D.
diuretics


87.
Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
nausea.
B.
headache.
C.
tachycardia.
D.
hot, dry skin.


88.
Drowning is MOST accurately defined as:
A.
temporary survival after submersion in water.
B.
death from suffocation after submersion in water.
C.
water in the lungs following submersion in water.
D.
death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.


89.
You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should:
A.
rewarm his foot in 100°F to 105°F (38°C to 40°C) water.
B.
administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C.
cover his foot with chemical heat compresses.
D.
protect the affected part from further injury.


90.
You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who is sick. The patient complains of a rash to her lower extremities and truncal area. Your assessment reveals a small, painful blister on her inner thigh. As your partner is taking the patient's vital signs, she states that she and her family returned from a camping trip two days ago. On the basis of this patient's presentation, you should suspect:
A.
Lyme disease.
B.
an allergic reaction.
C.
exposure to poison ivy.
D.
Rocky Mountain spotted fever.


91.
A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (–1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unconscious, pale, and apneic. After initiating artificial ventilations, you should:
A.
apply an automated external defibrillator (AED) and assess his cardiac rhythm.
B.
assess for a carotid pulse for up to 45 seconds.
C.
begin chest compressions and transport at once.
D.
apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae.


92.
Covering a patient's _________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss.
A.
head
B.
chest
C.
abdomen
D.
extremities


93.
High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose heat through:
A.
radiation.
B.
convection.
C.
conduction.
D.
evaporation.


94.
Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A.
a decreased ability to shiver.
B.
a relatively small surface area.
C.
a smaller amount of body fat.
D.
a smaller overall muscle mass.


95.
Rough handling of a hypothermic patient with a pulse may cause:
A.
profound bradycardia.
B.
ventricular fibrillation.
C.
ventricular tachycardia.
D.
pulseless electrical activity.


96.
A patient with a core body temperature of 95°F (35°C) will MOST likely experience:
A.
a slow pulse.
B.
rapid breathing.
C.
muscle stiffness.
D.
loss of consciousness.


97.
You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30′. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should:
A.
suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, position him on his left side with his head down, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.
B.
place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department.
C.
suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber.
D.
position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-mask device, and contact medical control for further guidance.


98.
Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically:
A.
superficial.
B.
third-degree.
C.
full-thickness.
D.
partial-thickness.


99.
A dysbarism injury refers to the signs and symptoms related to changes in:
A.
rapid ascent.
B.
rapid descent.
C.
decompression.
D.
barometric pressure.


100.
Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct?
A.
Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs.
B.
Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm.
C.
Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims.
D.
Laryngospasm following submersion in water makes rescue breathing difficult.



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